IBPS PO Prelims Practice Mock

100 questions, 60 minutes and three independently locked 20-minute sections. Read the weighting convention before starting.

2026 prelims format used here

The timed paper contains 100 questions across three independently timed sections. Each section lasts 20 minutes; unused time cannot move to the next section. You can review questions within the current section, but once a section closes you cannot return to it. No calculator is allowed in this practice paper.

Practice sections, question counts, mark totals and independent time limits
SectionQuestionsMarksTime
English Language303020 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude353020 minutes
Reasoning Ability354020 minutes
Total10010060 minutes

Practice scoring and item weights

The official notification gives the section totals above and deducts one quarter of the marks assigned to a question for a wrong answer. It does not establish equal item weights within each section. For this practice paper we assign equal weights within a section: 1 mark for English, 30/35 marks for Quantitative Aptitude and 40/35 marks for Reasoning Ability. A wrong response deducts one quarter of that item's assigned practice marks; an unanswered response earns zero.

The report shows raw correct answers and a weighted practice score out of 100. Equal item weighting is our disclosed convention, not a claim about official item weights. This paper is a learning sample and does not model official difficulty, selection cutoffs or score normalisation.

How to review the paper

Use one timed attempt to practise managing each 20-minute block. Then review explanations without a clock, identify the relevant skill and revisit IBPS PO preparation for topic practice. Feedback mode removes section timers and penalties so you can learn the method.

Official source

IBPS CRP PO/MT-XVI detailed notification (2026): preliminary examination table on printed page 12 (PDF page 15), wrong-answer penalty on printed page 14 (PDF page 17). Checked 21 October 2026. This is an independent practice paper, not an IBPS paper or an endorsed simulation.

Start timed paper Practise with feedback

Feedback mode is untimed, has no negative marking and reveals the explanation after an answer. Every answer and explanation is also available below, with a link to report an error.

What this practice score means

These independently assembled practice papers are free and require no registration. The interface, question mix and difficulty are our teaching choices and are not calibrated against an official assessment. Scores show only your performance on this paper: they do not establish an official score, percentile, cutoff or hiring outcome.

Many questions reuse our existing skill practice sets. If you have seen an item before, repeated exposure can improve your score without showing a comparable improvement on unseen questions. Review your reasoning and use a first attempt as a personal study baseline.

All 100 questions, answers and explanations

    English Language

  1. 1. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
    1. Each of the files is labelled.
    2. Each of the files are labelled.
    3. Each of the files were label.
    4. Each of the files have labelled.
    5. Each of the files be labelled.

    Reference: q-99899de3-43 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. Each of the files is labelled.

    The subject each is singular, so it takes is.
  2. 2. Choose the correct completion: Neither the branch manager nor the clerks ___ available yesterday.
    1. was
    2. were
    3. is
    4. has
    5. being

    Reference: q-97576962-98 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. were

    With neither...nor, the verb agrees here with the nearer plural subject clerks. Yesterday requires were.
  3. 3. Choose the correct completion: By the time the meeting began, Leena ___ the agenda.
    1. sends
    2. has send
    3. had sent
    4. sending
    5. had sending

    Reference: q-4befc03c-84 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. had sent

    The sending preceded another past event, so had sent is the appropriate past perfect.
  4. 4. Choose the correct sentence about the figures.
    1. The figures is consistent.
    2. The figure are consistent.
    3. The figures has consistent.
    4. The figures are consistent.
    5. The figures was consistent.

    Reference: q-2494100b-47 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. The figures are consistent.

    Figures is plural and takes are.
  5. 5. Choose the correct completion: The officer is responsible ___ checking the register.
    1. from
    2. at
    3. of
    4. by
    5. for

    Reference: q-5fdc8ee5-85 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. for

    The standard construction is responsible for an activity.
  6. 6. Choose the correct completion: If the counter opened earlier, customers ___ less time waiting.
    1. would spend
    2. will spent
    3. would spent
    4. had spends
    5. would spending

    Reference: q-23e7ef51-95 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. would spend

    A hypothetical present condition takes would plus the base verb spend.
  7. 7. Choose the correct sentence using suggested.
    1. She suggested to revise the form.
    2. She suggested revising the form.
    3. She suggested revise the form.
    4. She suggested that revising the form.
    5. She suggested for revise the form.

    Reference: q-bbf5f67f-45 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. She suggested revising the form.

    Suggested can be followed by a gerund: suggested revising.
  8. 8. Choose the correct completion: There were ___ applications this week than last week.
    1. less
    2. little
    3. fewer
    4. much
    5. fewest

    Reference: q-53d71a97-85 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. fewer

    Applications are countable plural items, so fewer is appropriate.
  9. 9. Choose the correct completion: The two departments agreed ___ a common deadline.
    1. from
    2. with
    3. by
    4. on
    5. into

    Reference: q-1cf3f3e-81 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. on

    Agree on is used for a jointly accepted subject or decision.
  10. 10. Choose the correct sentence about information.
    1. The information were useful.
    2. The information are useful.
    3. The informations was useful.
    4. The information have useful.
    5. The information was useful.

    Reference: q-a1e3f4eb-47 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. The information was useful.

    Information is an uncountable noun and takes was here.

  11. During a power failure, library volunteers (1) ___ each request in a paper log. (2) ___ the computer system was unavailable, readers could still borrow books. When power was (3) ___, staff entered the logged requests into the system. They (4) ___ the entries with the paper log to check for omissions. The log was a temporary measure, not a (5) ___ replacement for the system.

    11. In blank 1 of the passage, choose the best word.
    1. recorded
    2. invented
    3. erased
    4. refused
    5. slept

    Reference: q-f97ab269-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. recorded

    The volunteers kept a paper log, so recorded fits what they did with each request.
  12. 12. In blank 2 of the passage, choose the best word.
    1. Unless
    2. Although
    3. Because of
    4. Until
    5. Despite

    Reference: q-c3698c28-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Although

    Although introduces the contrast: the system was unavailable but borrowing continued.
  13. 13. In blank 3 of the passage, choose the best word.
    1. printed
    2. borrowed
    3. restored
    4. delayed
    5. weighed

    Reference: q-2fa221bf-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. restored

    Power being restored permits the computer system to be used again.
  14. 14. In blank 4 of the passage, choose the best word.
    1. prevented
    2. occupied
    3. removed
    4. compared
    5. slept

    Reference: q-d59f96e6-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. compared

    Comparing the entered records with the source log helps find omissions.
  15. 15. In blank 5 of the passage, choose the best word.
    1. careful
    2. readable
    3. triangular
    4. useful
    5. permanent

    Reference: q-d220656d-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. permanent

    Temporary is contrasted with permanent; the log was not intended as a lasting replacement.

  16. A fictional branch tested queue tickets on Tuesdays for four weeks. The purpose was to see whether the arrangement reduced confusion about service order. The pilot recorded fewer queue-order complaints than the preceding four Tuesdays. It did not record service times or customer satisfaction. The manager planned to collect those measures before deciding whether to use tickets every day.

    16. What was the main purpose of the pilot?
    1. To test a queue-ticket arrangement
    2. To close the branch
    3. To replace all staff
    4. To increase account fees
    5. To sell the branch building

    Reference: q-c3f358eb-436 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. To test a queue-ticket arrangement

    The passage explicitly identifies testing a queue-ticket arrangement as the pilot purpose.
  17. 17. Which measure was not recorded in the pilot?
    1. The pilot duration
    2. Service times
    3. Queue-order complaints
    4. The days used
    5. The number of Tuesdays in the pilot

    Reference: q-f750da67-441 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Service times

    The passage explicitly says service times were not recorded.
  18. 18. What does the passage support?
    1. Service became faster every day.
    2. Every customer was satisfied.
    3. Queue-order complaints fell in the recorded comparison.
    4. Tickets were adopted permanently.
    5. Every other branch should adopt tickets immediately.

    Reference: q-4a7c23d3-427 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. Queue-order complaints fell in the recorded comparison.

    Only the complaint comparison is supported. Satisfaction, speed and permanent adoption are not established.
  19. 19. Why did the manager plan further measurement?
    1. To avoid using any records
    2. Because tickets were lost
    3. Because all complaints increased
    4. Because some relevant outcomes had not been measured
    5. Because the branch had closed permanently

    Reference: q-ac4bf9f8-442 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. Because some relevant outcomes had not been measured

    Service time and satisfaction were not measured; more evidence was needed for the wider decision.
  20. 20. In this passage, preceding most nearly means:
    1. Following
    2. Identical
    3. Unrecorded
    4. Remaining
    5. Previous

    Reference: q-3f8118e7-442 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. Previous

    Preceding means coming before, so previous fits the comparison period.

  21. A fictional scholarship office added a second review of incomplete applications to detect recording mistakes before final decisions. Reviewers could correct an incorrectly recorded document status but could not waive the published eligibility rules. Applicants whose records changed were told which entry had been corrected. The office did not publish a comparison of award rates before and after the change.

    21. Why was a second review added?
    1. To detect mistakes before a final decision
    2. To remove the eligibility rule
    3. To replace applicants
    4. To make every request slower
    5. To abolish written records

    Reference: q-5b2a9c89-446 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. To detect mistakes before a final decision

    The stated aim of the second review is to detect mistakes before the decision.
  22. 22. What could reviewers do?
    1. Waive every eligibility rule
    2. Correct an incorrectly recorded document status
    3. Guarantee an award
    4. Change the published application deadline
    5. Automatically approve every incomplete application

    Reference: q-30024f4f-440 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Correct an incorrectly recorded document status

    The passage permits record correction and explicitly rules out waiving eligibility.
  23. 23. Which conclusion is unsupported?
    1. Some records could be corrected.
    2. Eligibility rules still applied.
    3. Award rates increased after the change.
    4. Affected applicants received correction details.
    5. Reviewers could not waive the published eligibility rules.

    Reference: q-731bf14e-448 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. Award rates increased after the change.

    No before-and-after award-rate comparison was published, so an increase is not supported.
  24. 24. What does waive mean in the passage?
    1. Write down
    2. Explain a decision
    3. Confirm a date
    4. Set aside a requirement
    5. Collect a payment

    Reference: q-ea1623f5-452 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. Set aside a requirement

    To waive a requirement is to set it aside or not enforce it.
  25. 25. Which title best fits the passage?
    1. Guaranteed Awards for Every Applicant
    2. Ending Eligibility Checks
    3. Comparing Scholarship Award Rates
    4. New Deadlines for Scholarship Applicants
    5. Correcting Application Records Before Decisions

    Reference: q-e4a25039-450 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. Correcting Application Records Before Decisions

    The passage concerns record correction before decisions, with eligibility rules retained.
  26. 26. Choose the correct completion: New evidence may ___ the conclusion.
    1. affect
    2. effected
    3. affection
    4. effective
    5. affecting

    Reference: q-106083d0-68 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. affect

    Affect is the verb meaning influence.
  27. 27. Choose the correct completion: The witness could ___ the delivery record with an independent receipt.
    1. correlate to
    2. corroborate
    3. decorate
    4. evaporate
    5. corroboration

    Reference: q-b8f723c4-102 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. corroborate

    Corroborate means support a statement with additional evidence.
  28. 28. Choose the correct completion: The grant was divided ___ three groups.
    1. between of
    2. across of
    3. among
    4. beside
    5. among of

    Reference: q-82ff6aad-71 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. among

    Among is the appropriate offered preposition for distribution to three groups.
  29. 29. Choose the correct completion: The officer asked for a ___ explanation, so the applicant removed unnecessary details.
    1. vague
    2. lengthier
    3. contradictory
    4. concise
    5. ornate

    Reference: q-363f16ed-118 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. concise

    Removing unnecessary detail produces a concise explanation.
  30. 30. Choose the sentence with the clearest logical connection.
    1. The form was incomplete, therefore although returned.
    2. The form was incomplete, because it was therefore.
    3. The form was incomplete, unless it was so.
    4. The form was incomplete, although because corrected.
    5. The form was incomplete, so it was returned for correction.

    Reference: q-da7ce591-58 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. The form was incomplete, so it was returned for correction.

    So clearly connects the incomplete form to its return for correction.

    31. Quantitative Aptitude

  31. 31. A help desk resolves 640 cases in June and 736 in July. What is the percentage increase?
    1. 15%
    2. 16%
    3. 18%
    4. 12%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-756a44ef-89 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 15%

    The increase is 96. Divide by the original 640: 96/640 times 100 = 15%.
  32. 32. A processing time falls from 50 minutes to 38 minutes. What is the percentage reduction?
    1. 20%
    2. 24%
    3. 31.58%
    4. 12%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-3bfe421e-89 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. 24%

    The reduction is 12 minutes. Relative to the original 50 minutes, 12/50 = 24%.
  33. 33. After a 20% price reduction, a licence costs $144. What was its original price?
    1. $200
    2. $172.80
    3. $180
    4. $192
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-c6f95d84-80 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. $180

    The new price is 80% of the original. Therefore original price = 144/0.80 = $180.
  34. 34. A monthly fee rises by 8% to $270. What was the fee before the rise?
    1. $252
    2. $262
    3. $248.40
    4. $250
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-6fdf84cd-69 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. $250

    The new fee is 1.08 times the original. Divide 270 by 1.08 to obtain $250.
  35. 35. A conversion rate rises from 16% to 20%. What is the increase in percentage points?
    1. None of the other answers
    2. 20
    3. 25
    4. 36
    5. 4

    Reference: q-f2ef1950-84 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 4

    Subtract the rates directly: 20% minus 16% is four percentage points. The relative increase would be 25%.
  36. 36. An error rate falls from 8% to 6%. What is the relative percentage reduction?
    1. 25%
    2. 20%
    3. 33.33%
    4. 2%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-21c341bc-78 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 25%

    The rate fell by two percentage points. Relative reduction = (8 minus 6)/8 = 25%.
  37. 37. Output rises by 20% and then by a further 10% from its new level. What is the total increase?
    1. 28%
    2. 32%
    3. 30%
    4. 35%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-b6f65d1e-94 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. 32%

    Multiply the growth factors: 1.20 times 1.10 = 1.32. The total increase is 32%.
  38. 38. A budget of $5,000 is cut by 10% and then increased by 10%. What is the final budget?
    1. $5,000
    2. $5,050
    3. $4,950
    4. $4,900
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-8e0fd130-86 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. $4,950

    5,000 times 0.90 times 1.10 = $4,950. Opposite percentage changes do not cancel.
  39. 39. A supplier raises a price from $75 to $90. What percentage reduction from $90 would restore the old price, rounded to two decimal places?
    1. 15%
    2. 20%
    3. 25%
    4. 16.67%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-12b83c69-138 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 16.67%

    The needed reduction is $15 on the new $90 base. 15/90 times 100 is approximately 16.67%.
  40. 40. A team completes 420 of 560 assigned checks. What percentage remains unfinished?
    1. 20%
    2. None of the other answers
    3. 30%
    4. 75%
    5. 25%

    Reference: q-a81e8a2d-81 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 25%

    Unfinished checks = 560 minus 420 = 140. Divide 140 by 560 to obtain 25%.
  41. 41. A US office has fourteen support staff and twenty-one analysts. What is the simplest ratio of support staff to analysts?
    1. 2:3
    2. 3:2
    3. 2:5
    4. 7:3
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-f628a067-121 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 2:3

    Write the quantities in the requested order: 14:21. Divide both by seven to obtain 2:3. The support share of all staff would be 14/35; that is a different comparison.
  42. 42. A UK project budget of £4,200 is shared between design and delivery in the ratio 2:5. How much is allocated to delivery?
    1. £1,200
    2. £3,000
    3. £2,100
    4. £3,500
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-785851ec-121 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. £3,000

    There are 2 + 5 = 7 parts altogether. Each is worth £4,200 ÷ 7 = £600. Delivery receives five parts, or £3,000; design receives the remaining £1,200.
  43. 43. An Australian store has blue and green folders in the ratio 3:8. It has 64 green folders. How many blue folders does it have?
    1. 16
    2. 21
    3. 24
    4. 32
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-e604b8da-126 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. 24

    Eight green parts equal 64 folders, so each part is eight folders. The blue stock has three parts: 3 × 8 = 24. Use the known green quantity to determine one part.
  44. 44. An Indian team has permanent and temporary staff in the ratio 9:16. What percentage of the whole team is permanent?
    1. 9%
    2. 25%
    3. 56.25%
    4. 36%
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-1c2324c0-116 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 36%

    There are 25 parts in total, of which nine are permanent. The share is 9 ÷ 25 × 100 = 36%. Dividing nine by sixteen would compare permanent staff with temporary staff, not the whole team.
  45. 45. A UK workshop compares a 45-minute inspection with a 1.5-hour inspection. What is the simplest ratio of the shorter time to the longer time?
    1. None of the other answers
    2. 2:1
    3. 3:10
    4. 30:1
    5. 1:2

    Reference: q-929581a0-141 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 1:2

    Convert 1.5 hours to ninety minutes. The requested ratio is 45:90, which simplifies to 1:2. Comparing the unconverted numbers 45 and 1.5 would mix incompatible units.
  46. 46. A US scanner processes 24 forms in six minutes at a constant rate. How many minutes will it take to process 36 forms at the same rate?
    1. 9
    2. 8
    3. 12
    4. 15
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-5524c5d7-135 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 9

    The scanner handles 24 ÷ 6 = four forms per minute. Processing 36 forms takes 36 ÷ 4 = nine minutes. At a constant rate, the required time is directly proportional to the number of forms.
  47. 47. Five identical printers working together complete a fixed job in twelve minutes. Assuming equal constant rates and no interference, how long would three of the printers take?
    1. 7.2 minutes
    2. 20 minutes
    3. 15 minutes
    4. 36 minutes
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-ced6b82c-175 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. 20 minutes

    The fixed job requires 5 × 12 = sixty printer-minutes. Divide by three printers to obtain twenty minutes. Fewer equally productive printers need more time, so this is inverse proportion.
  48. 48. An Australian site plan uses a scale of 1:25,000. Two points are four centimetres apart on the plan. What actual distance does that represent?
    1. 0.1 km
    2. 0.25 km
    3. 1 km
    4. 10 km
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-d16a4bb1-143 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. 1 km

    Multiply the plan distance by 25,000 to get 100,000 centimetres. One kilometre contains 100,000 centimetres, so the actual distance is one kilometre. The scale uses the same length unit on both sides.
  49. 49. A fictional recipe uses 600 grams of flour for eight equal servings. Keeping the recipe proportions unchanged, how much flour is needed for fourteen servings?
    1. 1,200 g
    2. 900 g
    3. 1,000 g
    4. 1,050 g
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-493f3274-159 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 1,050 g

    Each serving requires 600 ÷ 8 = 75 grams of flour. Fourteen servings therefore need 14 × 75 = 1,050 grams. Scale every ingredient by the same fourteen-eighths factor to preserve the recipe.
  50. 50. Two positive quantities are in the ratio 5:9, and the larger exceeds the smaller by 28. What is their sum?
    1. 70
    2. None of the other answers
    3. 126
    4. 196
    5. 98

    Reference: q-db2e5178-107 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 98

    The difference of four parts equals 28, so one part equals seven. The quantities are 35 and 63, and their sum is 98. The given 28 represents the difference, not the total.
  51. 51. Ten staff average 30 checks each and twenty staff average 45. What is the combined average?
    1. 40
    2. 37.5
    3. 35
    4. 42.5
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-e6e055d0-92 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 40

    Total checks = 10 times 30 plus 20 times 45 = 1,200. Divide by 30 staff to obtain 40.
  52. 52. A shop sells 40 units at $12 and 60 units at $17. What is the average selling price per unit?
    1. $15.50
    2. $15.00
    3. $14.50
    4. $14.00
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-e5565aec-94 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. $15.00

    Revenue is 480 plus 1,020 = $1,500 for 100 units. Average price is $15.
  53. 53. An assessment gives 30% weight to a score of 80 and 70% to a score of 60. What is the weighted score?
    1. 70
    2. 68
    3. 66
    4. 64
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-4610143a-102 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. 66

    Weighted score = 0.30 times 80 plus 0.70 times 60 = 24 plus 42 = 66.
  54. 54. Eight trainees average 70 points and twelve average 85. What is the combined average?
    1. 77.5
    2. 76
    3. 80
    4. 79
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-c82ab3dc-86 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 79

    Total points = 8 times 70 plus 12 times 85 = 1,580. Divide by 20 trainees to get 79.
  55. 55. Twenty packages have an average mass of 6 kg. Five more packages average 10 kg. What is the new average?
    1. 8 kg
    2. 6.5 kg
    3. None of the other answers
    4. 7 kg
    5. 6.8 kg

    Reference: q-be7e8d61-105 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 6.8 kg

    Combined mass = 20 times 6 plus 5 times 10 = 170 kg. Divide by 25 packages: 6.8 kg.

  56. Output in units: North Q1 150, Q2 180. South Q1 210, Q2 240.

    56. What is the combined Q2 output?
    1. 420
    2. 390
    3. 480
    4. 450
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-4576c406-99 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 420

    Add the Q2 figures: North 180 plus South 240 = 420 units.
  57. 57. Which branch has the greater percentage output increase from Q1 to Q2?
    1. South
    2. North
    3. Cannot determine
    4. Equal increases
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-db13fdd-138 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. North

    North rises 30/150 = 20%; South rises 30/210 = about 14.29%. The equal absolute increase does not imply equal percentage growth.

  58. Quarterly costs in thousands of dollars: East 12; West 18; Central 15.

    58. What is West cost in dollars?
    1. $180
    2. $18
    3. $18,000
    4. $1,800
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-962ed601-107 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. $18,000

    The table unit is thousands of dollars. West 18 therefore represents $18,000.

  59. Team A: 8 employees, 160 units. Team B: 6 employees, 150 units. Team C: 10 employees, 240 units.

    59. Which team has the highest output per employee?
    1. A
    2. A and C tie
    3. C
    4. B
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-38489535-151 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. B

    A produces 20 per employee; B produces 25; C produces 24. B has the highest productivity.

  60. Sales revenue: online $24,000; in-store $36,000.

    60. What share of total sales comes from online sales?
    1. 30%
    2. 35%
    3. None of the other answers
    4. 60%
    5. 40%

    Reference: q-6dd3e9d9-106 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 40%

    Total sales are 24,000 plus 36,000 = $60,000. Online share is 24,000/60,000 = 40%.

  61. Group A: 100 orders, 10% returned. Group B: 1,000 orders, 5% returned.

    61. What is the total number of returns?
    1. 60
    2. 15
    3. 45
    4. 65
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-6e7898f0-114 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 60

    Group A has 10 returns and Group B has 50. Combined count is 60.

  62. Travel budget $1,000, actual $1,100. Software budget $2,000, actual $2,400. Training budget $1,500, actual $1,400.

    62. Which category is most over its cost budget in money terms?
    1. Training
    2. Software
    3. They are equal
    4. Travel
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-56c171b3-181 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Software

    Travel is $100 over; software is $400 over; training is $100 under. Software has the greatest overspend.

  63. Product P: 200 units, cost $8 per unit. Product Q: 150 units, cost $10 per unit.

    63. Can the records establish which product has greater total profit?
    1. They have equal profit
    2. Yes, P
    3. Cannot determine
    4. Yes, Q
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-3db32181-153 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. Cannot determine

    The records give quantities and unit costs but no selling prices or revenues, so profit cannot be compared.

  64. Calls handled: Monday 80, Tuesday 90, Wednesday 100, Thursday 80.

    64. What is the mean daily call count across these four days?
    1. 82.5
    2. 85
    3. 90
    4. 87.5
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-d6bf8042-130 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 87.5

    The total is 80 plus 90 plus 100 plus 80 = 350. Divide by four days to get 87.5.

  65. Depot A: 200 shipments, 3% late. Depot B: 500 shipments, 2% late.

    65. How many more late shipments did Depot B have than Depot A?
    1. 6
    2. 8
    3. 2
    4. None of the other answers
    5. 4

    Reference: q-7e44705e-132 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 4

    A has 200 times 0.03 = 6 late shipments; B has 500 times 0.02 = 10. B has four more.

    66. Reasoning Ability

  66. 66. Every priority shipment is tracked. Parcel K is not tracked. Which conclusion must be true?
    1. K is not priority
    2. K is priority
    3. K is delayed
    4. All tracked parcels are priority
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-60deff4e-92 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. K is not priority

    A priority parcel must be tracked. K is not tracked, so it cannot be priority. Delay is not mentioned.
  67. 67. Only supervisors may approve refunds. Nia approved a refund. What follows?
    1. Every supervisor approves refunds
    2. Nia is a supervisor
    3. Nia is the only supervisor
    4. Nia approved all refunds
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-1dee9dce-75 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Nia is a supervisor

    Approval requires supervisor status. The rule does not require every supervisor to approve a refund.
  68. 68. A briefing occurs before a demonstration. The demonstration occurs before a review. Which event must be first among these three?
    1. Review
    2. Demonstration
    3. Briefing
    4. Cannot determine
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-4697502c-129 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. Briefing

    The order is briefing, demonstration, review.
  69. 69. Exactly one of the servers P and Q is offline. P is online. What must be true?
    1. Q is online
    2. Neither is offline
    3. Both are offline
    4. Q is offline
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-79c455b8-79 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. Q is offline

    Exactly one must be offline. Because P is not, Q must be.
  70. 70. A permit requires both training and an ID check. Omar has training but no ID check. Under this rule, is Omar eligible for the permit?
    1. Yes
    2. None of the other answers
    3. Only if he requests it
    4. Eligibility follows from training alone
    5. No

    Reference: q-34568f2d-134 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. No

    Both requirements are necessary. The missing ID check prevents eligibility.
  71. 71. All audit files are encrypted. Some encrypted files are archived. Must some audit files be archived?
    1. No; the overlap is not established
    2. Yes, necessarily
    3. Yes, if encryption is secure
    4. All audit files must be archived
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-e63443ae-101 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. No; the overlap is not established

    The archived encrypted files may all be non-audit files. Membership in a wider encrypted group does not prove this overlap.
  72. 72. Three lockers contain 2, 4 and 6 folders respectively, one total per locker. Locker A has more folders than B. Locker B has more than C. How many are in B?
    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 3
    4. 6
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-69542d66-156 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. 4

    The strict descending order forces A = 6, B = 4 and C = 2.
  73. 73. No temporary badge opens the lab. Badge R opens the lab. What follows?
    1. R is temporary
    2. R opens every room
    3. R is not temporary
    4. R belongs to a manager
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-54778ec4-71 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. R is not temporary

    A lab-opening badge cannot be in the temporary category. Ownership and other rooms are unspecified.
  74. 74. If a task is urgent, it is assigned today. Task M was assigned today. Must M be urgent?
    1. Yes
    2. No task can be urgent
    3. Yes, because today is a workday
    4. No; non-urgent tasks might also be assigned today
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-edaf5830-88 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. No; non-urgent tasks might also be assigned today

    The rule runs from urgent to assigned today, not the reverse.
  75. 75. Four speakers A, B, C and D speak once each. A is first, C is after B, and D is last. Who is second?
    1. A
    2. None of the other answers
    3. C
    4. D
    5. B

    Reference: q-bc1cebd2-101 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. B

    With first and last fixed, B and C occupy the middle positions. B must precede C, so B is second.
  76. 76. Using successive odd-number differences, continue: 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?
    1. 39
    2. 37
    3. 35
    4. 41
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-33e348cd-71 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. 39

    Differences are 3, 5, 7, 9. The next difference is 11, so the next term is 39.
  77. 77. Continue the two interleaved counting sequences: 3, 20, 6, 18, 9, 16, ?
    1. 13
    2. 12
    3. 14
    4. 15
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-bbf73606-72 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. 12

    Odd positions increase 3, 6, 9, 12; even positions decrease 20, 18, 16. The next term is in the odd-position sequence.
  78. 78. A marker repeats this clockwise cycle: north, east, south, west. It starts north. Where is it after six moves?
    1. North
    2. East
    3. South
    4. West
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-6b7162ec-111 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. South

    Four moves complete one cycle. Two further moves reach south.
  79. 79. Continue by doubling and adding one: 2, 5, 11, 23, ?
    1. 45
    2. 46
    3. 48
    4. 47
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-8bcab8f2-53 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. 47

    Each step is previous times two plus one. Therefore 23 times two plus one is 47.
  80. 80. Frames one to four contain 1, 2, 4 and 8 dots respectively. The number doubles in each new frame. What is the count in frame six?
    1. 12
    2. 16
    3. 24
    4. None of the other answers
    5. 32

    Reference: q-b7193a25-130 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. 32

    Starting with one dot in frame one, frames five and six contain 16 and 32 dots respectively.
  81. 81. Continue the letter series using successive jumps of 2, 3, 4, then 5 places: B, D, G, K, ?
    1. P
    2. O
    3. N
    4. Q
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-185eea59-91 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. P

    K is position 11. Adding the next jump, five, reaches position 16, P.
  82. 82. A tile alternates hollow, solid, hollow, solid. What is the eighth tile?
    1. Hollow
    2. Solid
    3. Half shaded
    4. Cannot determine under the rule
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-fe3facee-73 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. Solid

    Even-numbered tiles are solid; eight is even.
  83. 83. Continue by subtracting 3, then 6, then 9, then 12: 50, 47, 41, 32, ?
    1. 17
    2. 18
    3. 20
    4. 23
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-db33c95c-70 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. 20

    The next subtraction is 12. Thus 32 minus 12 is 20.
  84. 84. A symbol rotates 90 degrees clockwise each step. Its arrow points left in frame one. Where does it point in frame four?
    1. Left
    2. Up
    3. Right
    4. Down
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-6dab3440-120 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. Down

    Left becomes up, then right, then down after three rotations.
  85. 85. A repeated three-frame pattern is circle, square, triangle. Which shape occupies position eleven?
    1. Circle
    2. None of the other answers
    3. Triangle
    4. Pentagon
    5. Square

    Reference: q-89203e03-98 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. Square

    Positions 2, 5, 8 and 11 are the second element of the cycle: square.

  86. Five demonstrations A, B, C, D and E occupy slots 1–5, once each. A is before C. B is immediately before D. E is not in slot 1 or slot 5. Before means earlier, not necessarily immediately earlier.

    86. Which statement must hold in every valid demonstration schedule?
    1. B occurs before D
    2. A occupies slot 1
    3. E occurs before C
    4. D occupies slot 5
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-d79a563c-268 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. B occurs before D

    The immediate-before rule always puts B before D. By contrast, B D E A C is valid with A fourth, and A C E B D is valid with E after C. D need not be last: B D E A C is a counterexample.
  87. 87. If B occupies slot 3, which demonstration must occupy slot 4?
    1. A
    2. D
    3. E
    4. C
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-4792684f-265 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. D

    B is immediately before D, so fixing B in slot 3 forces D into slot 4. A C B D E would put E last and is invalid; A E B D C shows the additional condition is feasible.
  88. 88. Which complete demonstration order is permitted?
    1. C A E B D
    2. A B E D C
    3. A E C B D
    4. E A C B D
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-2b8f415f-252 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. A E C B D

    A E C B D satisfies A before C, the adjacent B D block, and E away from both endpoints. C A reverses precedence, B E D breaks adjacency, and E first violates its position restriction.
  89. 89. If E occupies slot 2 and C occupies slot 3, which demonstration must be first?
    1. B
    2. C
    3. D
    4. A
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-387420f5-282 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. A

    A must precede C. With E already second and C third, the only earlier slot available for A is first. The remaining slots are occupied by B then D, giving A E C B D.
  90. 90. Which demonstration cannot occupy slot 5 in any valid schedule?
    1. None of the other answers
    2. C
    3. D
    4. None of these three
    5. B

    Reference: q-333175e9-267 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. B

    B must be immediately before D, so B cannot be last. C can be last in B D E A C, while D can be last in A C E B D. Thus B is the only impossible final demonstration among those listed.

  91. For one fictional access request, approval requires training and an ID check. Training plus an ID check does not by itself guarantee approval. Approval always issues a pass. A pass can also be issued for other reasons. A suspension prevents approval. Treat these rules as exhaustive constraints for this exercise; a fact not forced by them may vary.

    91. An access request is approved. Which pair of checks must have been completed?
    1. Training and ID check
    2. Training only
    3. ID check only
    4. Neither check is required
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-1f5b2f2f-434 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. Training and ID check

    Approval requires both training and an ID check. Both are necessary, so an approved request must have both. This does not reverse the rule into a guarantee of approval for every checked request.
  92. 92. No pass was issued for a request. Which conclusion must follow?
    1. It was approved
    2. It was not approved
    3. Its ID check failed
    4. It was suspended
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-daaa69c-420 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. It was not approved

    Approval always issues a pass. No pass therefore rules out approval by contraposition. The request might lack a check or fail for another reason; neither a failed ID check nor suspension is forced.
  93. 93. A request has training and an ID check. What is established about approval?
    1. It must be approved
    2. It must be suspended
    3. Approval is not determined
    4. It cannot receive a pass
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-b94b486c-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. Approval is not determined

    The checks are necessary but are explicitly not a sufficient guarantee. A checked request can be approved or unapproved while respecting every rule; neither suspension nor pass refusal follows.
  94. 94. A request is suspended. Which outcome is impossible under the access rules?
    1. A pass issued for another reason
    2. Training completed
    3. ID check completed
    4. Approval
    5. None of the other answers

    Reference: q-6984b758-432 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. Approval

    Suspension prevents approval, making that outcome impossible. A suspended request can still have completed checks, and the rules do not prohibit a pass issued for another reason.
  95. 95. A request has a pass but no completed training. Which conclusion must follow?
    1. It was approved
    2. None of the other answers
    3. Its ID check failed
    4. It was suspended
    5. It was not approved

    Reference: q-162b8b92-434 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. It was not approved

    Approval requires training. With no training, approval is impossible even though a pass exists. The rules expressly permit passes for other reasons, so there is no contradiction in these facts.
  96. 96. In a code, each letter is replaced by the next English letter, with Z becoming A. How is BANK written?
    1. CBOL
    2. ABMJ
    3. CBOJ
    4. DCPM
    5. CBOM

    Reference: q-49d018dd-103 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: A. CBOL

    B→C, A→B, N→O, K→L gives CBOL.
  97. 97. In a code, each letter is replaced by the previous English letter, with A becoming Z. How is LOAN written?
    1. MPBO
    2. KNZM
    3. KOBM
    4. LNZM
    5. KNZL

    Reference: q-faa61b3f-107 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: B. KNZM

    L→K, O→N, A→Z, N→M gives KNZM.
  98. 98. If letters are numbered A=1 to Z=26, what is the sum of the letters in CASH?
    1. 33
    2. 32
    3. 31
    4. 34
    5. 35

    Reference: q-3de1d2-77 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: C. 31

    C+A+S+H = 3+1+19+8 = 31.
  99. 99. A code reverses the order of letters. How is CREDIT written?
    1. CREIDT
    2. TIEDRC
    3. TIDREC
    4. TIDERC
    5. TIDCRE

    Reference: q-41aedbf4-61 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: D. TIDERC

    Reverse C R E D I T to obtain T I D E R C.
  100. 100. A code moves each letter two places forward in the English alphabet, wrapping after Z. What is PAY?
    1. QBZ
    2. RCB
    3. RBC
    4. QCA
    5. RCA

    Reference: q-fb203ead-100 · Report this question

    Show answer and solution

    Answer: E. RCA

    P→R, A→C, Y→A, so PAY becomes RCA.

Choose another full-length practice format