SSC CGL Full Mock 1

100 questions · 4 sections · 150 minutes

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This independent mixed skill paper uses our practice sections, 90 seconds per question and marking of +1 correct, −0.25 wrong and zero unanswered. It is not a verified reproduction of the current official examination or a calibrated predictor of results. For the specifically sourced format and weights of our IBPS PO prelims paper, see that separate practice page.

This form contains 40 quantitative, 35 reasoning and 25 English questions selected from our shared reviewed teaching bank. Some questions also appear in other forms and topic practice; familiarity can affect scores. There is no general-awareness section. The historical examination name does not imply verified syllabus coverage, an official format or statistical equivalence between forms. See the dated review scope and limitations.

SSC CGL Full Mock 1: questions and answers

Take the paper first if you want an honest score. The answers and solutions below are folded away until you open them.

    Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. 39 + 7 × 4 − 5 = ?
    1. 59
    2. 179
    3. 62
    4. 56

    Reference: q-52d38de9-19 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 62

    Multiply first: 7 × 4 = 28. Then 39 + 28 − 5 = 62.
  2. 2. 20% of 360 + 5% of 240 = ?
    1. 84
    2. 82
    3. 78
    4. 86

    Reference: q-33b34484-27 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 84

    20% of 360 = 72 and 5% of 240 = 12. Their sum is 84.
  3. 3. √289 + 12² = ?
    1. 41
    2. 158
    3. 162
    4. 161

    Reference: q-975a3544-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 161

    √289 = 17 and 12² = 144, so the value is 17 + 144 = 161.
  4. 4. 1/3 of 48 + 23 = ?
    1. 45
    2. 41
    3. 39
    4. 35

    Reference: q-aa262397-19 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 39

    1/3 of 48 = 16. Adding 23 gives 39.
  5. 5. (20² − 5²) ÷ (20 − 5) = ?
    1. 15
    2. 31
    3. 21
    4. 25

    Reference: q-e512040a-26 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 25

    a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so the value is 20 + 5 = 25.
  6. 6. 39 + 5 × 9 − 24 = ?
    1. 372
    2. 66
    3. 60
    4. 58

    Reference: q-b0d37267-20 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 60

    Multiply first: 5 × 9 = 45. Then 39 + 45 − 24 = 60.
  7. 7. 45% of 260 + 10% of 100 = ?
    1. 123
    2. 121
    3. 127
    4. 133

    Reference: q-1be0fec7-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 127

    45% of 260 = 117 and 10% of 100 = 10. Their sum is 127.
  8. 8. √144 + 5² = ?
    1. 34
    2. 22
    3. 37
    4. 28

    Reference: q-a4a27ac-14 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 37

    √144 = 12 and 5² = 25, so the value is 12 + 25 = 37.
  9. 9. 5/6 of 174 + 16 = ?
    1. 161
    2. 155
    3. 167
    4. 152

    Reference: q-ed6ef4ba-20 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 161

    5/6 of 174 = 145. Adding 16 gives 161.
  10. 10. (15² − 6²) ÷ (15 − 6) = ?
    1. 18
    2. 22
    3. 9
    4. 21

    Reference: q-f1805f4e-26 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 21

    a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so the value is 15 + 6 = 21.
  11. 11. 27 + 7 × 8 − 26 = ?
    1. 60
    2. 57
    3. 51
    4. 246

    Reference: q-4cec0013-20 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. 57

    Multiply first: 7 × 8 = 56. Then 27 + 56 − 26 = 57.
  12. 12. 60% of 360 + 5% of 100 = ?
    1. 216
    2. 206
    3. 221
    4. 231

    Reference: q-1649d36d-27 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 221

    60% of 360 = 216 and 5% of 100 = 5. Their sum is 221.
  13. 13. √441 + 8² = ?
    1. 83
    2. 82
    3. 85
    4. 37

    Reference: q-127e5cd9-14 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 85

    √441 = 21 and 8² = 64, so the value is 21 + 64 = 85.
  14. 14. 3/5 of 50 + 29 = ?
    1. 65
    2. 53
    3. 62
    4. 59

    Reference: q-ed9a13fe-19 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 59

    3/5 of 50 = 30. Adding 29 gives 59.
  15. 15. (35² − 20²) ÷ (35 − 20) = ?
    1. 58
    2. 53
    3. 55
    4. 15

    Reference: q-4a50382e-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 55

    a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so the value is 35 + 20 = 55.
  16. 16. 31 + 6 × 5 − 21 = ?
    1. 31
    2. 34
    3. 40
    4. 164

    Reference: q-9eb087cb-20 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 40

    Multiply first: 6 × 5 = 30. Then 31 + 30 − 21 = 40.
  17. 17. 45% of 240 + 30% of 300 = ?
    1. 198
    2. 200
    3. 194
    4. 202

    Reference: q-d7f236e9-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 198

    45% of 240 = 108 and 30% of 300 = 90. Their sum is 198.
  18. 18. √784 + 12² = ?
    1. 170
    2. 172
    3. 52
    4. 168

    Reference: q-67d3eba4-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. 172

    √784 = 28 and 12² = 144, so the value is 28 + 144 = 172.
  19. 19. 3/8 of 184 + 6 = ?
    1. 75
    2. 80
    3. 65
    4. 85

    Reference: q-273df716-19 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 75

    3/8 of 184 = 69. Adding 6 gives 75.
  20. 20. (33² − 19²) ÷ (33 − 19) = ?
    1. 56
    2. 14
    3. 54
    4. 52

    Reference: q-9c3e236a-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 52

    a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so the value is 33 + 19 = 52.
  21. 21. Find the simple interest on Rs. 6,000 at 5% per annum for 4 years.
    1. Rs. 1,020
    2. Rs. 1,200
    3. Rs. 300
    4. Rs. 1,260

    Reference: q-10899d97-67 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Rs. 1,200

    SI = P × R × T / 100 = 6,000 × 5 × 4 / 100 = Rs. 1,200.
  22. 22. What amount will Rs. 6,000 become in 2 years at 5% per annum simple interest?
    1. Rs. 6,600
    2. Rs. 600
    3. Rs. 6,840
    4. Rs. 6,240

    Reference: q-a752fcc4-78 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Rs. 6,600

    SI = 6,000 × 5 × 2 / 100 = Rs. 600. Amount = Rs. 6,000 + Rs. 600 = Rs. 6,600.
  23. 23. At what rate per annum will Rs. 5,000 earn a simple interest of Rs. 800 in 2 years?
    1. 8%
    2. 6%
    3. 5%
    4. 7%

    Reference: q-394b48a5-84 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 8%

    R = 100 × SI / (P × T) = 100 × 800 / (5,000 × 2) = 8%.
  24. 24. In how many years will Rs. 2,000 earn a simple interest of Rs. 500 at 5% per annum?
    1. 7 years
    2. 2 years
    3. 5 years
    4. 6 years

    Reference: q-e5389c52-84 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 5 years

    T = 100 × SI / (P × R) = 100 × 500 / (2,000 × 5) = 5 years.
  25. 25. A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
    1. 10%
    2. 17.5%
    3. 12.5%
    4. 2.5%

    Reference: q-8e5650f-102 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 10%

    The interest equals the principal, so P × R × 10 / 100 = P, which gives R = 100 / 10 = 10%.

    26. Reasoning Ability

  26. 26. Find the next term in the series: E, J, O, T, ?
    1. Y
    2. X
    3. A
    4. Z

    Reference: q-ed01101e-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Y

    Each letter is 5 places ahead of the one before it, so the next term is Y.
  27. 27. Find the next term in the series: J, H, F, D, ?
    1. Z
    2. A
    3. C
    4. B

    Reference: q-a0ba68ee-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. B

    Each letter is 2 places before the previous one, so the next term is B.
  28. 28. Find the next term in the series: J, K, M, P, T, ?
    1. Z
    2. Y
    3. A
    4. X

    Reference: q-78731a6e-51 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Y

    The gaps between letters grow by one each time: +1, +2, +3, +4, +5. The next term is Y.
  29. 29. Find the next term in the series: BY, CX, DW, EV, ?
    1. FT
    2. GV
    3. FU
    4. EU

    Reference: q-f2db3342-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. FU

    The first letters move forward by 1 and the second letters move backward by 1. The next term is FU.
  30. 30. Find the next term in the series: FH, IK, LN, OQ, ?
    1. TV
    2. QS
    3. RT
    4. RU

    Reference: q-86e9624e-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. RT

    Both letters of each group move 3 places forward. The next term is RT.
  31. 31. Find the next term in the series: H, J, L, N, ?
    1. Q
    2. O
    3. N
    4. P

    Reference: q-ddf6d56e-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. P

    Each letter is 2 places ahead of the one before it, so the next term is P.
  32. 32. Find the next term in the series: Y, W, U, S, ?
    1. Q
    2. R
    3. S
    4. O

    Reference: q-70ddef46-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Q

    Each letter is 2 places before the previous one, so the next term is Q.
  33. 33. Find the next term in the series: D, F, I, M, R, ?
    1. W
    2. X
    3. V
    4. Y

    Reference: q-2c2abce2-51 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. X

    The gaps between letters grow by one each time: +2, +3, +4, +5, +6. The next term is X.
  34. 34. Find the next term in the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
    1. EW
    2. DU
    3. EV
    4. CT

    Reference: q-c8385bf2-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. EV

    The first letters move forward by 1 and the second letters move backward by 1. The next term is EV.
  35. 35. Find the next term in the series: DF, IK, NP, SU, ?
    1. XY
    2. VX
    3. XZ
    4. XA

    Reference: q-b9abfb1e-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. XZ

    Both letters of each group move 5 places forward. The next term is XZ.
  36. 36. Find the next term in the series: A, C, E, G, ?
    1. H
    2. G
    3. I
    4. J

    Reference: q-538baf7e-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. I

    Each letter is 2 places ahead of the one before it, so the next term is I.
  37. 37. Find the next term in the series: R, P, N, L, ?
    1. L
    2. K
    3. J
    4. I

    Reference: q-799d7f6e-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. J

    Each letter is 2 places before the previous one, so the next term is J.
  38. 38. Find the next term in the series: G, H, J, M, Q, ?
    1. V
    2. W
    3. T
    4. U

    Reference: q-7e64948b-51 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. V

    The gaps between letters grow by one each time: +1, +2, +3, +4, +5. The next term is V.
  39. 39. Find the next term in the series: CX, DW, EV, FU, ?
    1. GS
    2. IV
    3. GU
    4. GT

    Reference: q-a05ae4fa-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. GT

    The first letters move forward by 1 and the second letters move backward by 1. The next term is GT.
  40. 40. Find the next term in the series: EG, IK, MO, QS, ?
    1. TW
    2. UW
    3. TV
    4. SU

    Reference: q-44e1aed6-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. UW

    Both letters of each group move 4 places forward. The next term is UW.
  41. 41. Find the next term in the series: A, E, I, M, ?
    1. Q
    2. S
    3. R
    4. P

    Reference: q-5f05832-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Q

    Each letter is 4 places ahead of the one before it, so the next term is Q.
  42. 42. Find the next term in the series: W, S, O, K, ?
    1. I
    2. G
    3. H
    4. E

    Reference: q-95199242-48 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. G

    Each letter is 4 places before the previous one, so the next term is G.
  43. 43. Find the next term in the series: E, G, J, N, S, ?
    1. A
    2. Y
    3. W
    4. X

    Reference: q-d5720ba7-51 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Y

    The gaps between letters grow by one each time: +2, +3, +4, +5, +6. The next term is Y.
  44. 44. Find the next term in the series: CX, EV, GT, IR, ?
    1. KO
    2. JP
    3. JO
    4. KP

    Reference: q-2210eafe-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. KP

    The first letters move forward by 2 and the second letters move backward by 2. The next term is KP.
  45. 45. Find the next term in the series: KL, NO, QR, TU, ?
    1. VX
    2. WX
    3. WY
    4. XY

    Reference: q-4cf5bef2-52 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. WX

    Both letters of each group move 3 places forward. The next term is WX.
  46. 46. In a certain code, MOTHER is written as NPUIFS. How is BRAIN written in that code?
    1. CSBOJ
    2. CSBJO
    3. AQZHM
    4. DTCKP

    Reference: q-d2574c56-83 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. CSBJO

    Each letter is moved 1 place forward in the alphabet, so BRAIN becomes CSBJO.
  47. 47. If SCHOOL is coded as LOOHCS, how is SILVER coded?
    1. RILVES
    2. RVELIS
    3. ERVLIS
    4. REVLIS

    Reference: q-e14b5636-51 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. REVLIS

    The letters of the word are written in reverse order, so SILVER becomes REVLIS.
  48. 48. If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 and so on up to Z = 26, what is the sum of the values of the letters in the word 'GOLD'?
    1. 35
    2. 40
    3. 38
    4. 39

    Reference: q-f3d53098-112 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 38

    G = 7, O = 15, L = 12, D = 4. Sum = 38.
  49. 49. If OWL is coded as 152312, how is CUP coded?
    1. 32116
    2. 32117
    3. 32016
    4. 42116

    Reference: q-fceffac3-45 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 32116

    Each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet: C = 3, U = 21, P = 16. So CUP is coded as 32116.
  50. 50. In a certain code each letter is replaced by the letter at the same position from the other end of the alphabet (A becomes Z, B becomes Y and so on). How is BRAIN written in that code?
    1. YIZRM
    2. XHYQL
    3. IYZRM
    4. ZJASN

    Reference: q-4f33ac6b-185 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. YIZRM

    Opposite pairs are A-Z, B-Y, C-X and so on. Replacing each letter gives YIZRM.

    51. English Language

  51. 51. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    He don't / know the answer / to this / question.
    1. He don't
    2. know the answer
    3. to this
    4. question.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-25c3f49b-151 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. He don't

    With "he" the verb is "doesn't": He doesn't know the answer.
  52. 52. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    Each of the students / have submitted / the assignment / on time.
    1. Each of the students
    2. have submitted
    3. the assignment
    4. on time.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-90cf7f15-168 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. have submitted

    "Each" takes a singular verb: has submitted.
  53. 53. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    She is / more taller / than her / elder sister.
    1. She is
    2. more taller
    3. than her
    4. elder sister.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-9bd08760-150 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. more taller

    "Taller" is already comparative, so "more" is not needed.
  54. 54. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    I have seen / that movie / yesterday / with my friends.
    1. I have seen
    2. that movie
    3. yesterday
    4. with my friends.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-89849ed9-158 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. I have seen

    A finished time such as "yesterday" needs the simple past: I saw.
  55. 55. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    The news / are very / encouraging / for the team.
    1. The news
    2. are very
    3. encouraging
    4. for the team.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-b88427b8-152 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. are very

    "News" is singular: The news is very encouraging.
  56. 56. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    He is / one of the best / player / in the team.
    1. He is
    2. one of the best
    3. player
    4. in the team.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-bdc8f3c-150 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. player

    "One of the" is followed by a plural noun: players.
  57. 57. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    Neither Ravi / nor his friends / was present / at the meeting.
    1. Neither Ravi
    2. nor his friends
    3. was present
    4. at the meeting.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-2baf9e4f-165 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. was present

    With "neither ... nor" the verb agrees with the nearer subject, "friends": were present.
  58. 58. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    She has been / living in Delhi / since / five years.
    1. She has been
    2. living in Delhi
    3. since
    4. five years.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-a6ccc3ad-155 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. since

    Use "for" with a period of time: for five years.
  59. 59. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    The teacher / asked the students / to open / their books.
    1. The teacher
    2. asked the students
    3. to open
    4. their books.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-fcc5d832-160 · Report this question

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    Answer: E. No error

    The sentence is correct as it stands.
  60. 60. Find the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
    Although he was tired, / but he / continued / to work.
    1. Although he was tired,
    2. but he
    3. continued
    4. to work.
    5. No error

    Reference: q-3efbbfce-157 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. but he

    "Although" and "but" are not used together; drop "but".
  61. 61. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    He has went to the market.
    1. has gone
    2. have gone
    3. had went
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-82548ea6-150 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. has gone

    The past participle of "go" is "gone": has gone.
  62. 62. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    If I was you, I would accept the offer.
    1. am
    2. were
    3. have been
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-c79f6736-163 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. were

    An unreal condition takes "were": If I were you.
  63. 63. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    She is senior than me in the office.
    1. senior from
    2. more senior than
    3. senior to
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-15fe7c56-160 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. senior to

    "Senior" is followed by "to", not "than".
  64. 64. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    I prefer tea than coffee.
    1. to
    2. over than
    3. from
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-ea438ad7-149 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. to

    "Prefer" is followed by "to": prefer tea to coffee.
  65. 65. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    He did not went to school yesterday.
    1. did not gone
    2. did not go
    3. has not went
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-4cffe403-160 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. did not go

    After "did not" use the base form of the verb: did not go.
  66. 66. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    The train had left before we reached the station.
    1. has left
    2. was leaving
    3. have left
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-a877ec98-173 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. No improvement

    The earlier of two past actions takes the past perfect, so the sentence is correct.
  67. 67. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    One of my friends are a doctor.
    1. were
    2. have been
    3. is
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-4bf86cb9-155 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. is

    The subject is "one", which is singular: is.
  68. 68. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    She is knowing the answer.
    1. knows
    2. was knowing
    3. has knowing
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-eb26d199-150 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. knows

    "Know" is not normally used in the continuous form: She knows the answer.
  69. 69. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    Hardly had he reached the station than the train left.
    1. then
    2. when
    3. while
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-9daaae3d-178 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. when

    "Hardly" is followed by "when".
  70. 70. Choose the option that best replaces the part in bold. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
    He said me that he was busy.
    1. told to me
    2. told me
    3. says me
    4. No improvement

    Reference: q-97d2c3e1-152 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. told me

    "Tell" takes a direct object: He told me that he was busy.

  71. Read the passage and choose the best word for each numbered blank.

    Reading is one of the most useful habits a person can (1) ______. It not only improves our knowledge but also (2) ______ our imagination. A person who reads regularly is usually better (3) ______ expressing ideas clearly. In today's busy world, many people complain that they do not have enough time to read. However, even fifteen minutes of reading every day can make a great (4) ______ over a year. The key is to choose books that interest you and to make reading a (5) ______ of your daily routine.

    71. Choose the most suitable word for blank (1).
    1. refuse
    2. destroy
    3. forget
    4. develop

    Reference: q-6c4332ea-643 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. develop

    A habit is something one develops.
  72. 72. Choose the most suitable word for blank (2).
    1. delays
    2. hides
    3. strengthens
    4. weakens

    Reference: q-47bb94ef-643 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. strengthens

    The sentence lists benefits, so a positive word is needed: strengthens.
  73. 73. Choose the most suitable word for blank (3).
    1. for
    2. at
    3. on
    4. in

    Reference: q-b33be110-643 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. at

    The correct phrase is "better at" doing something.
  74. 74. Choose the most suitable word for blank (4).
    1. noise
    2. mistake
    3. trouble
    4. difference

    Reference: q-d523e82d-643 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. difference

    The usual expression is "make a great difference".
  75. 75. Choose the most suitable word for blank (5).
    1. piece
    2. break
    3. part
    4. cost

    Reference: q-c0059a0e-643 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. part

    The usual expression is "a part of your daily routine".

    76. General Awareness

  76. 76. ISRO stands for
    1. Indian Satellite Research Organisation
    2. Indian Space Research Organisation
    3. International Space Research Organisation
    4. Indian Space and Rocket Organisation

    Reference: q-7b9eb876-16 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Indian Space Research Organisation

    ISRO, the Indian Space Research Organisation, is India's national space agency.
  77. 77. UNESCO stands for
    1. United Nations Economic, Social and Cultural Organization
    2. United Nations Educational, Social and Children's Organization
    3. Union of Nations for Education, Science and Culture
    4. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

    Reference: q-c3b1328c-18 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

    UNESCO is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
  78. 78. GDP stands for
    1. General Domestic Product
    2. Gross Domestic Product
    3. Gross Domestic Price
    4. Gross Development Product

    Reference: q-1f7e81e-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Gross Domestic Product

    GDP is the total value of goods and services produced within a country in a year.
  79. 79. In a postal address, PIN stands for
    1. Postal Index Number
    2. Personal Identification Number
    3. Postal Identity Number
    4. Post Identification Number

    Reference: q-183a3a29-36 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Postal Index Number

    In postal addresses PIN means Postal Index Number, the six-digit code introduced in 1972.
  80. 80. WHO stands for
    1. World Health Office
    2. World Healthcare Organization
    3. World Hygiene Organization
    4. World Health Organization

    Reference: q-49482465-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. World Health Organization

    WHO is the World Health Organization, a specialised agency of the United Nations.
  81. 81. NASA stands for
    1. North American Space Agency
    2. National Aerospace and Space Agency
    3. National Aeronautics and Satellite Administration
    4. National Aeronautics and Space Administration

    Reference: q-af863aa0-16 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. National Aeronautics and Space Administration

    NASA is the space agency of the United States.
  82. 82. LPG stands for
    1. Liquefied Petroleum Gas
    2. Light Petroleum Gas
    3. Liquid Petrol Gas
    4. Liquefied Propane Gas

    Reference: q-eef1f5b6-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Liquefied Petroleum Gas

    LPG, used as cooking gas, is Liquefied Petroleum Gas.
  83. 83. IAS stands for
    1. Indian Allied Service
    2. Indian Administration Staff
    3. Indian Administrative Section
    4. Indian Administrative Service

    Reference: q-b973ac14-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. Indian Administrative Service

    IAS is the Indian Administrative Service.
  84. 84. CBI stands for
    1. Central Bureau of Intelligence
    2. Criminal Bureau of Investigation
    3. Central Bureau of Investigation
    4. Central Board of Investigation

    Reference: q-45c08529-15 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. Central Bureau of Investigation

    CBI is the Central Bureau of Investigation.
  85. 85. DRDO stands for
    1. Department of Research and Defence Operations
    2. Defence Research and Design Organisation
    3. Defence Research and Development Organisation
    4. Defence Resources and Development Office

    Reference: q-bfee123a-16 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. Defence Research and Development Organisation

    DRDO is the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
  86. 86. The SI unit of force is the
    1. watt
    2. newton
    3. joule
    4. pascal

    Reference: q-7fd2a315-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. newton

    Force is measured in newtons (N).
  87. 87. The SI unit of electric current is the
    1. ampere
    2. ohm
    3. coulomb
    4. volt

    Reference: q-5d37a364-39 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. ampere

    Electric current is measured in amperes (A).
  88. 88. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately
    1. 3 × 10⁵ m/s
    2. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
    3. 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s
    4. 3 × 10⁸ m/s

    Reference: q-841448c9-46 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. 3 × 10⁸ m/s

    Light travels at about 3 × 10⁸ metres per second in vacuum.
  89. 89. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
    1. Hygrometer
    2. Ammeter
    3. Thermometer
    4. Barometer

    Reference: q-aa2708d8-58 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. Barometer

    A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.
  90. 90. The SI unit of power is the
    1. joule
    2. volt
    3. newton
    4. watt

    Reference: q-184a85b-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. watt

    Power is measured in watts (W); 1 watt = 1 joule per second.
  91. 91. Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
    1. Concave mirror
    2. Convex mirror
    3. Plane mirror
    4. Cylindrical mirror

    Reference: q-a6bede15-56 · Report this question

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    Answer: B. Convex mirror

    A convex mirror gives a wider field of view, so it is used as a rear-view mirror.
  92. 92. Sound cannot travel through
    1. Vacuum
    2. Air
    3. Water
    4. Steel

    Reference: q-33014f56-28 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Vacuum

    Sound needs a material medium, so it cannot travel through a vacuum.
  93. 93. The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of the earth is approximately
    1. 9.8 m/s²
    2. 8.9 m/s²
    3. 10.8 m/s²
    4. 6.7 m/s²

    Reference: q-103083cc-79 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. 9.8 m/s²

    The value of g near the surface of the earth is about 9.8 m/s².
  94. 94. "To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" is
    1. The law of gravitation
    2. Newton's first law of motion
    3. Newton's second law of motion
    4. Newton's third law of motion

    Reference: q-a335fe67-61 · Report this question

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    Answer: D. Newton's third law of motion

    This is the statement of Newton's third law of motion.
  95. 95. Which lens is used to correct short-sightedness (myopia)?
    1. Concave lens
    2. Convex lens
    3. Cylindrical lens
    4. Bifocal lens

    Reference: q-11719edb-58 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Concave lens

    Myopia is corrected with a concave (diverging) lens.
  96. 96. The Constitution of India came into force on
    1. 15 August 1947
    2. 26 November 1949
    3. 26 January 1950
    4. 2 October 1950

    Reference: q-a8c3b08f-45 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 26 January 1950

    The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950.
  97. 97. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
    1. Dr B. R. Ambedkar
    2. Jawaharlal Nehru
    3. Dr Rajendra Prasad
    4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

    Reference: q-1a1c7435-75 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Dr B. R. Ambedkar

    Dr B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. Dr Rajendra Prasad was President of the Constituent Assembly.
  98. 98. Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
    1. Part III
    2. Part IV
    3. Part V
    4. Part II

    Reference: q-d2eb945d-68 · Report this question

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    Answer: A. Part III

    Part III (Articles 12 to 35) deals with Fundamental Rights.
  99. 99. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability?
    1. Article 21
    2. Article 14
    3. Article 17
    4. Article 19

    Reference: q-64f7e51a-60 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. Article 17

    Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  100. 100. What is the minimum age required to become the President of India?
    1. 25 years
    2. 30 years
    3. 35 years
    4. 40 years

    Reference: q-7c8d013a-67 · Report this question

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    Answer: C. 35 years

    A candidate for President must have completed 35 years of age.

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